Colonial nations add to naval force limit?
I read the wiki & it stated they do not, but I cannot fathom any other way that nations such as Spain & Portugal (especially Portugal) get such high supply limits. In my current game Portugal has a base tax of 146, a coastal non overseas base tax of 45. 45! A very small overseas base tax that I'm not going to count as almost all his territories are colonies. He gains 25 from merchants, 35 from buildings & he has 4 centers of trade. He has a "global empire" multiplier of 25%. This apparently gives him a supply limit of 227.
Somehow he gets 120 from ports with such low base tax how is this possible I just don't get it? I remember in a previous Portugal game I played I ended up with around 800 naval supply limit, likewut? How does it work!??!
Important parts of the wiki:
"Subjects don't increase the naval force limit of their masters."
"+0.5 per base tax of coastal provinces"
http://www.eu4wiki.com/Force_limit
Oh & he only has like 3 colonies that are trade companies, none of his 8 S.African colonies are trade companies for some bizarre reason.
You can compare this to myself in the game playing as Bengal. All of Indian coast taken, all centers of trade in India taken, 137 supply limit. I mean even Ming only has a supply limit of 73 and most of the Chinese coastline is between 6 and 12 base tax, so there is something else going on here.
EDIT: Just realised it's not base tax but total tax which adds a lot more to his but still doesn't explain the huge amount more he has than me. My total coastal tax is still way higher than his. Does explain why Mings force limit sucks though.
EDIT2: Just loaded up my old Portugal game. Apparently my naval force limit was actually 1426 HAHAHAHA. Whaaaaat. 2nd highest was England with 350. I don't get this at all.
I read the wiki & it stated they do not, but I cannot fathom any other way that nations such as Spain & Portugal (especially Portugal) get such high supply limits. In my current game Portugal has a base tax of 146, a coastal non overseas base tax of 45. 45! A very small overseas base tax that I'm not going to count as almost all his territories are colonies. He gains 25 from merchants, 35 from buildings & he has 4 centers of trade. He has a "global empire" multiplier of 25%. This apparently gives him a supply limit of 227.
Somehow he gets 120 from ports with such low base tax how is this possible I just don't get it? I remember in a previous Portugal game I played I ended up with around 800 naval supply limit, likewut? How does it work!??!
Important parts of the wiki:
"Subjects don't increase the naval force limit of their masters."
"+0.5 per base tax of coastal provinces"
http://www.eu4wiki.com/Force_limit
Oh & he only has like 3 colonies that are trade companies, none of his 8 S.African colonies are trade companies for some bizarre reason.
You can compare this to myself in the game playing as Bengal. All of Indian coast taken, all centers of trade in India taken, 137 supply limit. I mean even Ming only has a supply limit of 73 and most of the Chinese coastline is between 6 and 12 base tax, so there is something else going on here.
EDIT: Just realised it's not base tax but total tax which adds a lot more to his but still doesn't explain the huge amount more he has than me. My total coastal tax is still way higher than his. Does explain why Mings force limit sucks though.
EDIT2: Just loaded up my old Portugal game. Apparently my naval force limit was actually 1426 HAHAHAHA. Whaaaaat. 2nd highest was England with 350. I don't get this at all.
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