mnplastic said:
I would correct - Eastern part. Which I want to include in Lithuanian Kingdom
Yea, I was speaking about the Samogitian projection.
However the situation is kind of absurd with our discussion and Lithuania Minor: the term and the Lithuanian (better say Samogitian as there was still no strong unity between the two ones as in modern times) cultural and linguistic influence came here only after the Prussian traditions were destroyed and graded with the German influence (which were 15th-16th centuries). Prussia was far superior in cultural sense than any of the Baltic lands (especially the swamps and forests of Lithuanian and Yatvyagians tribes), its economical and sacral center. It was no chance that it would be influenced in similar way if not the TO, so your claims to make it Lithuanian sphere basing on these facts had no sense without Order’s invasion of Prussia… Kind of paradox.
On the background of our discussion I even thought about creating the Prussian kingdom than Lithuanian one.

As soon as we cannot recreate historical situation with historical Lithuanian "kingdom" (with its interesting model of Pagan monarchs, Ruthenian model of the Royal court and organization of feudal society, and mixed Pagan-Orthodox-Catholic elites) then why not to create Baltic (Prussian) Kingdom here without spreading it to “Kievian” (“Ruthenian”) sphere.

If there is not TO invasion, so much chance Prussia wound become the leading force in the region.
mnplastic said:
Well, then I do not see the reason why it shouldn't belong to France
Because it was not part of the French crown but only it vassal… Same as Prussia or Courland were not (and even not vassals in CK period).
mnplastic said:
In theory but in practice HRE had to prove and prove its claims on Italy. In CK terms, it means: no Italy Kingdom title, just start with Italian duchies and Republics as vassals.
It does not need to prove anything as everyone in Europe (except Venice and the Pope may be) recognized Emperor as the sovereign of Italy.
mnplastic said:
It just supports my reasoning even more, why Lithuania would take Baltic Coast before anybody else would.
May be this is logical in your mind but neither in real history with TO, nor in hypothetical with free superior Prussia.
mnplastic said:
No, I am talking that Lithuanian Dukes were already in the same league as Western Kings, as Poland wouldn't take any pagan duke and make its king. Duke Gediminas was already recognised by Western powers, he just needed to make decision and make Lithuania Kingdom. However due political situation inside the country, not outside it was not very practical at that moment.
They were not. They could become Polish monarchs (or anyone else – the Bohemian kings for example) but not Lithuanian. They were recognized as sovereign rulers, as Grand Dukes, but not as the Kings. As I said Kingdom (in medieval times, not in modern era) is the extremely complex state system and Lithuania lacked half of this specifics (especially if t goes about the homogeneous elites which considered themselves part of one Crown – the understanding which appeared in Lithuania not earlier than 15th century). This is the theme for another discussion and it’s better to turn in to the historical forum if you wish. It was naturally about the paganism of the Lithuanian rulers (and they as potential kings), but about Lithuania itself as kingdom. So, as you said “due political situation inside the country, not outside it was not very practical at that moment”. The real state which reminds us of all medieval kingdom features was formed in the middle 15th century (much thanks to what Vytautas did in the later period as well as the first laws codifications of Casimir Jagiellon in 1460s).