I'm still new to this game, and have observed the following:
I'm playing Castille, and allied with Austria. Austria sent "Call to Arms" which I accepted. Did not want to send infantry, so I decided to place an "embargo" upon Brittany (a participant with France in the war against Austria). I also DID NOT actually send a Castille fleet to the coast of Brittany. I've never received any indication from AI Austria (or Brittany) that I've not participated as required.
Do I "NOT" have to actually send my Castille fleet to complete my obligation to this "Call to Arms"? This is actually the 2nd "Call to Arms" I've answered from Austria and "accepted" that I've not "actually" sent a fleet. Is this correct/OK according to the game's rules? It just seems odd that I can "accept" a "Call to Arms" (to avoid losing prestige) and not have to actually participate in the war (except for the diplomatic action of placing an embargo).
Experienced comments will be appreciated.
Thanks, Bob.
I'm playing Castille, and allied with Austria. Austria sent "Call to Arms" which I accepted. Did not want to send infantry, so I decided to place an "embargo" upon Brittany (a participant with France in the war against Austria). I also DID NOT actually send a Castille fleet to the coast of Brittany. I've never received any indication from AI Austria (or Brittany) that I've not participated as required.
Do I "NOT" have to actually send my Castille fleet to complete my obligation to this "Call to Arms"? This is actually the 2nd "Call to Arms" I've answered from Austria and "accepted" that I've not "actually" sent a fleet. Is this correct/OK according to the game's rules? It just seems odd that I can "accept" a "Call to Arms" (to avoid losing prestige) and not have to actually participate in the war (except for the diplomatic action of placing an embargo).
Experienced comments will be appreciated.
Thanks, Bob.