Originally posted by Duuk
Not to be rude, but the South seceeded because they felt that slavery as an issue would soon be abolished since the north was politically superior to the south at this time (Lincoln was elected without carrying a single southern state).
Anyone claiming otherwise is a revisionist on the same scale as people who claim the Holocaust didn't happen.
If WWII taught us anything, it is that revisionism is bad, even if people in the south want to think that their former system of repression, evil, and greed is somehow idealistic.
The CSA would not have abolished slavery ever. It was in their constitution that slavery could neither be abolished by congress nor by individual states. (Article IV section 2 clause 3, Article 4 section 3 clause 3).
Nowhere in the confederate constitution is it mentioned that states have a right to secede from the confederacy. With notable exceptions (slavery), the CSA constitution is the same as the US constitution.
States' rights was not the issue. Accept that.
You may not intend to be rude, but I greatly resent being compared to someone who denies the Holocaust, and I await your apology. I have a doctorate in history. May I ask what your credentials are?
I never said slavery wasn't an issue, I said it wasn't the ONLY issue, and that it wasn't the ROOT issue. I find your argument to the contrary naïve and shallow, and I suspect your reading on the subject has been quite limited, and dated. You sound like an economic determinist - an approach that has been largely discredited as overly simplistic by modern scholarship.
You may wish to read more on the subject before offering any more insults. Pehaps you could start on this thread - I would appreciate it if you would read my entire message before making such dismissive comments and gross generalisations about my argument.
If Southern secession was purely a matter of slavery, how do you explain the tarriff crisis of the 1830s?
Lincoln was elected on a platform of stopping the expansion of slavery into the western territories where slave-based agriculture wouldn't have worked anyway. He had no intention of ending slavery until AFTER the war had commenced.
The election signaled a political realignment in the union that left the South out of the equation. This did NOT mean the abolition of slavery - that would have required a constitutional amendment, which still would have been too difficult. It DID mean that centralising policies hostile to the South, such as tarriffs, could be enacted, however.
Furthermore, your interpretation of the Confederate Consitution is flawed, so I suggest you reread those clauses. The first clause you cite affirms the US fugitive slave law, stating that escaped or illegally transported slaves would not be considered emancipated by virtue of having reached free soil. Why would that be in the consititution at all if states were prohibited from abolishing slavery? The second clause allows slavery in territories that are not yet states (a reaffirmation of Dred Scott v. Sanford). Finally, right of secession is implied by the enumeration of federal powers and in Article VI Section 1 Clause 6, just as in the US constitution (which is why Lincoln did not want the issue to go before the Supreme Court).
As I have already said: The issues involved were political: slavery, tarriffs, states' rights, etc. but the regional differences that underlay these differences were CULTURAL. The different regions had different origins, and these origins shaped the development of the cultures in these regions. These cultural differences are WHY different regions had different ideas, attitudes, and perceptions regarding these political issues. And they STILL shape the political landscape today.
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