The focus tree from Hungary gives us the opportunity to restore Austria-Hungary. Furthermore there is a focus, which is called 'Protect Czechoslovakia'. After graduation of the focus, Czech gets an event, which has three options.
Bohemia returns to the crown: Austria-Hungary annexes the Czechoslovakia
Bohemia agrees to closer relationship: Czechoslovakia becoming a puppet of Austria-Hungary; If Austria-Hungary is in a faction, Czechoslovakia joins the faction.
[CZE.GetNameDef] refuses advances: Czechoslovakia refuses; Austria-Hungary gains claims
If Bohemia returns to the crown occurs, former Austro-Hungarian territory is again under the rule of the crown of Habsburg. But now, the German Reich can still demand the Sudetenland.
The plan of the German Reich was to smash the Czechoslovakia. The first part of it was the annexion of the Sudetenland, decided in the Munich Agreement in 1938, to protect the german minority.
But what if Austria-Hungary had formed again and integrated the Czechoslovakia before 1938? Would Germany have demanded the Sudetenland? The areas were part of Austria-Hungary until 1918. So a claim of Germany would be invalid, right? Personally, I think so.
What do you think? Should Paradox change that?
Bohemia returns to the crown: Austria-Hungary annexes the Czechoslovakia
Bohemia agrees to closer relationship: Czechoslovakia becoming a puppet of Austria-Hungary; If Austria-Hungary is in a faction, Czechoslovakia joins the faction.
[CZE.GetNameDef] refuses advances: Czechoslovakia refuses; Austria-Hungary gains claims
If Bohemia returns to the crown occurs, former Austro-Hungarian territory is again under the rule of the crown of Habsburg. But now, the German Reich can still demand the Sudetenland.
The plan of the German Reich was to smash the Czechoslovakia. The first part of it was the annexion of the Sudetenland, decided in the Munich Agreement in 1938, to protect the german minority.
But what if Austria-Hungary had formed again and integrated the Czechoslovakia before 1938? Would Germany have demanded the Sudetenland? The areas were part of Austria-Hungary until 1918. So a claim of Germany would be invalid, right? Personally, I think so.
What do you think? Should Paradox change that?