I just wonder if this "crusade" would be handle the same way at the crusades in the Levant.
At a point, the king of France himself did not backed it up, as it was clearly breaking all the rules of feodality (The Pope granting fiefs in the area directly to Simon de Montfort, ouside of any feodal ownership and vassalage link with the Count of Toulouse), and turn up being the Frank Barons of the North pillaging the Languedoc (Remember, Toulouse was the third biggest and wealthiest city of Europe at this time !).
So, how will this particular event be handled ?
Cat
PS: Sorry if it is not the first time this particular subject pop-up.
At a point, the king of France himself did not backed it up, as it was clearly breaking all the rules of feodality (The Pope granting fiefs in the area directly to Simon de Montfort, ouside of any feodal ownership and vassalage link with the Count of Toulouse), and turn up being the Frank Barons of the North pillaging the Languedoc (Remember, Toulouse was the third biggest and wealthiest city of Europe at this time !).
So, how will this particular event be handled ?
Cat
PS: Sorry if it is not the first time this particular subject pop-up.