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ArVass

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Calling the words in Albanian which have cognates in Romanian "loans from Romanian" is weird and/or misleading, as it is just more likely that the Balkanic language which was the substrate of Romanian was in fact identical or related to the Albanian language's predecessor. This basically means that some of these peoples (be them Illyric or Daco-Thracian by origin) have been nearly fully romanized under Roman rule, becoming the Balkanic Romance languages (but while becoming Romance, they retained some old, pre-Roman words), while some were only partially romanized (while still not being a Romance language, Albanian has taken a LOT of loans from Latin) for a reason or another, and survived in Albania until the 21st century.
 
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ChargerOZ

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Nov 27, 2019
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No, All linguists can agree on is its an Indo-European language, and probably the sole surviving member of the Paleobalkan branch which in of itself is a group poorly attested languages from over 2000 years ago.
To keep it brief we have no mentions of Albanians until 1070 ish, before that we simply dont know where they were, they simply pop up in Byzantine records in the late 11th century.
I think these two post literally explain why they should be there in the start date for 1044. For a people to have a rebellion, the one you're mentioning from the Byzantine records in 1070,means they occupied that land. So I don't think its a overstep by any means to assume they lived in that land only a few years prior if their languages and cultures are like you're saying descendent of Paleobalkan culture. There are plenty of cultures which are in the game which have even less basis then albanian, so I dont really understand why they would be excluded.
 
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