Sweden has cores on Jämtland, Halland, Blekinge, and Skåne, despite never having owned these territories before in 1444 (I may be wrong on Jämtland, but Scania had always been under the Danish crown). It also has a core on Gotland, but at least that's Swedish, and has been under Swedish dominion at some point.
Castile, meanwhile, has cores on all of Granada's stuff, while Granada has cores on none of Castile's stuff. This doesn't really make sense at all. If anyone should have cores, it's Granada, having recently lost land of their primary culture. Meanwhile, the Iberians lost the southern coast, what, seven hundred years ago?
Why are these cores there? It's not like Sweden and Castile would fail without them.
Castile, meanwhile, has cores on all of Granada's stuff, while Granada has cores on none of Castile's stuff. This doesn't really make sense at all. If anyone should have cores, it's Granada, having recently lost land of their primary culture. Meanwhile, the Iberians lost the southern coast, what, seven hundred years ago?
Why are these cores there? It's not like Sweden and Castile would fail without them.