Again this section of history is dying.
Why did the two Iberian powers take the lead in exploration?? I can see that France and England were in the midst of war, and the Netherlands and Greece were under foreign domination. The Italian cities had the trade monopolies with the Arabs, so they had no initiative to find new ways to trade with the far east.
However, the Hanseatic cities and the Nordic cities had no such restrictions. So why didn't the northern countries/cities attempt to make commercial-minded voyages as did the Iberians in the early 15th century??
Why did the two Iberian powers take the lead in exploration?? I can see that France and England were in the midst of war, and the Netherlands and Greece were under foreign domination. The Italian cities had the trade monopolies with the Arabs, so they had no initiative to find new ways to trade with the far east.
However, the Hanseatic cities and the Nordic cities had no such restrictions. So why didn't the northern countries/cities attempt to make commercial-minded voyages as did the Iberians in the early 15th century??