'Spain sends a huge fleet into the western Black sea annihilating roving Turkish fleets on several occasions, however they do not land an expeditionary force'
if turkey is at war with spain, how did spain send a 'huge' fleet through the dardanelles and the bosphorus against turkish opposition????
this is a problem. not even the allies in WWI were able to force the straits (gallipoli campaign). who ever controls the bosphorus (ie constantinople), should be able to block the straits to any naval forces trying to pass between the black sea and agean and vice versa
daztek
[This message has been edited by Daztek (edited 09-07-2000).]