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I doubt that the British would ever have been "starved" into submission. Britain is one of the few european countries that actually produces enough food to export to neighbouring countries. It would have been more like the Germans starved into submission
Not in that time period. Britain was a major food importer then.Originally posted by Bocaj
I doubt that the British would ever have been "starved" into submission. Britain is one of the few european countries that actually produces enough food to export to neighbouring countries. It would have been more like the Germans starved into submission
The last peace-time famine in Western Europe was during the potato-blight in Ireland in the 1840s. Because of better output per acre of farmland due to technical innovations, Western European countries generally were able to provide for their populations. However, the common diet was considerably improved resulting in better health during the later 19th. century. This had a lot to do with cheaper imports made possible by refrigeration. During wars, a lot of the peasants were out fighting though, so food-shortages happened then (like in WWI Russia).
It was also a political choice to favour cheaper food imports over home production. This resulted in a shift of population from the fields where people could not earn a decent living anymore to the growing factories. Overall the move resulted in worsening conditions for the people who moved from relatively decent live conditions in the countryside to the slave like conditions of the ealy factories.
Other nations like France protected their agriculture to remain self sufficient and stay independent as far as food was concerned. This resulted in a slower industrialization but protected the interests of the relatively prosperous and politically powerful peasant class.
Other nations like France protected their agriculture to remain self sufficient and stay independent as far as food was concerned. This resulted in a slower industrialization but protected the interests of the relatively prosperous and politically powerful peasant class.
Originally posted by Bocaj
I doubt that the British would ever have been "starved" into submission. Britain is one of the few european countries that actually produces enough food to export to neighbouring countries. It would have been more like the Germans starved into submission
As said not in the period and not now either.
All European nations are self sufficient more or less.
Sadly this means an enourmus surplus but this has nothing to do with the game.
The nations with surplus was mainly the US, Canada and Argentina. Prehaps Brazil to but not sure.
From the mid 19th Century all major Western European countries depended on food imports. One important source of domestoic conflict was tarriffs on food.
In WWI Britain as more successful in starving Germany than Germany was in starving Britain - though the British government cam,e close to panicking in the sapring of 1917.
In WWI Britain as more successful in starving Germany than Germany was in starving Britain - though the British government cam,e close to panicking in the sapring of 1917.
Afaik Britain removed/greatly reduced thiers in 1830:es and didn't put them up again until 1930:es when they were to help the dominions/colonies to compete.
Britain definetly did not produce all the food she needed in 1860. Britain was even more heavily dependent on the periphery for acquiring food in the 1890s and right through till the Green Revolution in the 1960s/70s IIRC.
Aye, Ottawa Pact, between Britain and Canada, NZ and Australia to agree to beef and grain commercial preference with Britain. Argentina had to negotiate an extorsive deal separately in 1933.