Hello,
I am curious as to the justification of De Jure Empire of Persia in 867 being so massive. The borders of De Jure Persia appears to align to the post-Heraclius Sasanian Empire / pre-Battle of al-Qadisiyyah Sasanian Empire.
While I actually agree with the notion that the international De Jure mindset of the Persians in the 630's may not have changed all that much from 636 - 867, why then have the Byzantines De Jure lands contracted so massively.
1. The Byzantines and Persians lost their holdings to the Arabs at about the same time.
2. The Byzantines/Romans held and ruled over the eastern Mediterranean more constantly and stably than the Persians controlled/ruled Mesopotamia, Azerbaijan and Transoxiana.
3. The Byzantines actually survived Muslim conquests until the 1400's, so the Byzantine's and international understanding of former Roman lands would have persisted. The Persians were completely conquered almost immediately following the Arab conquests.
At the end of the day, it doesn't really matter and I'm not complaining, I just don't understand the logic behind the massive De Jure Empire of Persia (Basically the 632 Sasanian Empire) as compared to the severely contracted De Jure Byzantine Empire - the logic seems upside-down.
I am curious as to the justification of De Jure Empire of Persia in 867 being so massive. The borders of De Jure Persia appears to align to the post-Heraclius Sasanian Empire / pre-Battle of al-Qadisiyyah Sasanian Empire.
While I actually agree with the notion that the international De Jure mindset of the Persians in the 630's may not have changed all that much from 636 - 867, why then have the Byzantines De Jure lands contracted so massively.
1. The Byzantines and Persians lost their holdings to the Arabs at about the same time.
2. The Byzantines/Romans held and ruled over the eastern Mediterranean more constantly and stably than the Persians controlled/ruled Mesopotamia, Azerbaijan and Transoxiana.
3. The Byzantines actually survived Muslim conquests until the 1400's, so the Byzantine's and international understanding of former Roman lands would have persisted. The Persians were completely conquered almost immediately following the Arab conquests.
At the end of the day, it doesn't really matter and I'm not complaining, I just don't understand the logic behind the massive De Jure Empire of Persia (Basically the 632 Sasanian Empire) as compared to the severely contracted De Jure Byzantine Empire - the logic seems upside-down.