Sorry but i have to disagree. Ruthenian nobility wasnt Polonized everywhere, and at the same rate (so area around Lvov or Lwow is definitely a completely different case compared to Kiev and Chernigov). Second, Ukraine as a state never existed during the EU3 time frame, i believe as any kind of entity it wasnt even used until the mid of end of EU3 time frame (it was used as geographic term, and even then not in 1399. i believe), and even when it came into being it was due to a specific political circumstances (Russian revolution) and is no way a natural unification of its people (same way Yugoslavia was a product of a certain political context, and not because its the natural desire of its people). At the same time, before Lithuania expanded (by force) into modern Ukraine, all the states i mentioned existed and were principalities, some since the Kievan Rus' and original Mongol invasion. So from my point of view, the question is this: what makes more sense? a country that existed 100 years before 1444. or a country that never existed before 1900s? Ukraine revolting in Ruthenian provinces is as anachronistic as Russia appearing as a revolter (opposed to being united by a decision) from Russian cultured provinces would be.