2). Byz starts as empire.
Oh, ok, that could make things awkward.
...Or maybe not. If Byzantium got to reconquer Anatolia, would they find the turkish people a scourge in their Empire?
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2). Byz starts as empire.
As mentioned above in this thread Anatolia was a clust... mixing pot of Greeks, Anatolians, and invading (invaded?) turks and to a lesser degree armenians, syrians and kurds. It is entirely plausible that Byz conquireing this area wouldnt be opposed culturally in western and central Anatolia, but would be opposed on basis of religeon, which we thankfully have an entire mechanic to represent.Oh, ok, that could make things awkward.
...Or maybe not. If Byzantium got to reconquer Anatolia, would they find the turkish people a scourge in their Empire?
As mentioned above in this thread Anatolia was a clust... mixing pot of Greeks, Anatolians, and invading (invaded?) turks and to a lesser degree armenians, syrians and kurds. It is entirely plausible that Byz conquireing this area wouldnt be opposed culturally in western and central Anatolia, but would be opposed on basis of religeon, which we thankfully have an entire mechanic to represent.
I think you and many others are forgetting that as of 1,16 according to today's dev diary cultural unions are focused more on encouraging historical outcomes over the span of the game. Sans Arabia is essentially "stuff turks conquered + turks". I actually like it as a general policy but I feel we dont need a CU of that size on the map for any reason. And Anatolian union solves an entire laundry list of issues whilst still obeying the general principle.But absent that, the idea of having both Arabs and Turks in the same culture group is just bizarre.
Ottomans claimed to be a new Caliphate, so that might be why they would be in the same culture group. And after all, they did conquer most of the Arab world.What Turks and Arabs have in common is their religion, which is already accounted for in the game. Maybe I could see dominant culture A more accepting of province culture B if both shared a religion.
But absent that, the idea of having both Arabs and Turks in the same culture group is just bizarre.
The same was true of the Turkish people. Most of the population of Anatolia in 1500 had ancestors living there in 1060. It's more accurate to put the Turkish people with the Greeks than it is the Turks, if we're talking about the local populace who had lived there for centuries.Eh, weren't most Andalusians Iberians that had been living in Spain for centuries before the Umayyad invasion? Many of them probably spoke Spanish and far from everyone was Muslim. That might not be the case for the Moorish elite and the people in power, but the commoners were probably fairly close to other people living in the Spanish peninsula, especially after the Alhambra Decree.
I'm sure everyone will be very happy if Turkish gets added to the Byzantine culture group.
Ottomans claimed to be a new Caliphate, so that might be why they would be in the same culture group. And after all, they did conquer most of the Arab world.
Ottomans also claimed that they are the new Roman Empire. So now claims do matter?Ottomans claimed to be a new Caliphate, so that might be why they would be in the same culture group. And after all, they did conquer most of the Arab world.
Ottomans also claimed that they are the new Roman Empire. So now claims do matter?
Ottomans were actually the last Empire to have Roman blood in their rulers:
"...Mehmed also had a blood lineage to the Byzantine Imperial family; his predecessor, Sultan Orhan I had married a Byzantine princess, and Mehmed may have claimed descent from John Tzelepes Komnenos."
Ottomans were actually the last Empire to have Roman blood in their rulers:
Closer than to western/central Antaolia? I don't think so. They had close diplomatic ties to italy (or tried to get them anyway), but to say that people of Edrine were closer to Venetians than to folks from Biga across the strait is.. simply untrue. The ruling class was definitely on the Italy bandwagon for obvious self preservation reasons, but your assertion that it makes sense in 1453 but not in 1444 shows that we think about cultures in a different manner. I for one don't think 10 years can alter culture of population one way or the other without resorting to outright cultural purges. And true - ottomans did their damnest to separate greek from the west. Remember CUs of 1.16 aren't based on prior history but on the history of 1444-1821, otherwise most of them seize to make sense. Otto doesn't need the buff but having 2 cultures (Greek and Turkish) just left out there surrounded by unions seems strange.No. To quote my post on why this would make no sense in 1444:
Culturally, in 1444, Greece was actually much closer to Italy.
Please don't frame this as anything but educated guess. If Byz reconquered anatolia it's entirely plausible that they would adopt policies not unlike the ottoman ones that but aimed at separating anatolia from arabian world.If Byzantium did survive and reconquer Greece, previous circumstances and events would have seen it gravitating towards Italy, not the Turks.
And the reverse of course would be impossible because...Likewise, Muslim Greeks were counted as Turks for all intents and purpose by the Ottomans, and generally assimilated into Turkish culture within a generation or two
I believe between this and ryazanian culture - it's simply shows how much historical data paradox have to shift through and they make mistakes, that can be oft perceived as slights, whilst in reality it's just them being imperfect i.e human. Have you considered starting a suggestion topic for this name change? From Arabic to Semetic that is.iwhy naming it arabic?