For the “historian nerds”, someone knows about ultrageniture?

Alucardvincent

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• Dec 30, 2014

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• #1

I am using it since I hate gavelkind with passion, but I found odd the concept of inheriting all to the younger one. Someone knows if this was really used in real life and why?

 

justin6477

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• Dec 30, 2014

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• #2

I'll just post the wiki page, it'll do a better job than I could.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ultimogeniture

 

Ziaolin

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• Dec 30, 2014

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• #3

I do remember reading somewhere that it was a tradition in some english borough. Otherwise, I don't see any other possibilites, except maybe the japanese concept, which is named masshi souzoku. (It's basically gavelkind, except that the younger child gets double.)

EDIT: Oh, my. Just saw the post before me. Now I remember where I read that.

 

Alucardvincent

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• Dec 30, 2014

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• #4

Thanks a lot, I googled for it and got so few results but it seems it was my dumb fault for not typing it right

 

FreeSoc

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• Dec 30, 2014

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• #5

Manuel I of the Byzantine Empire was the youngest son of John II, although that's about the only instance of ultimogeniture in Byzantine history that I can think of off the top of my head.

 

A

Alehkra

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• Dec 30, 2014

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• #6

The Mongolians had a somewhat similar thing going. Not that the youngest son became Khan, that was supposed to have been elected by the family, but the youngest son was expected to inherit the family's homelands. I.e., Genghis Khan's youngest son ended up being in charge of what was then considered the Mongolian homeland, even though another became Great Khan

 

rashtrakut

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• Dec 30, 2014

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• #7

FreeSoc said:

Manuel I of the Byzantine Empire was the youngest son of John II, although that's about the only instance of ultimogeniture in Byzantine history that I can think of off the top of my head.

Click to expand...

Yeah, but Manuel kinda usurped the throne. He happened to be with daddy when he died and got himself proclaimed before anybody else could act.