We were thinking about an option to reintroduce the royal right of the first night![]()
Officially EU4 (but not Euro) skeptic.
Former MMtG staff member.

Maybe I got something wrong, but did you say that pop is the "base" of the tax & manpower calculations? Cos that would be a huge break from EU3 (/mm) where there were base values for those, and the difference between a thousand and a million inhabitants was like 3x manpower and some ok tax increase. Trade value went up quite a bit though ...
I'm confused now. Pop was the base of what?![]()
You're right, I wasn't precise enough. Of course there is a base value which symbolizes the average wealth of the province. But this is always multiplied by the population of the province and every other modifiers came in only after that.
So the base value AND the population is the base of everything.
Officially EU4 (but not Euro) skeptic.
Former MMtG staff member.
This does not make sense for countries were wealth came mostly from agriculture, not from the cities i.e. Eastern Europe. Unless province population does not represent only the city .
None.
Population represents only urban population. Is it fair? Maybe not, but that's not the point. Population is just another factor like base tax that affects the relative wealth of provinces. Do we want to have a realistic distribution of population? Based on what? We can only have estimates and those are debatable. And if we did, it would swift the balance, and end up in implausible results, because this is not a simulation but a very simple abstraction to model the growth of wealth over time. My head hurts.
We're still flying
The major roadblock to anything but a generalized populace representative, is that in many places, there were no detailed records that provide us historical data needed for anything specific.
The model chosen - base representation of urban population followed by specific tweaks available through structural improvements and policy focus do a fairly good job at balance and overall game-play. It is true that there will be things that may not make perfect historical sense, but the game overall should still be very representative of plausibility.
Also, due to the generalized nature of the system, results will end up being different from the historical empiricle data - this is one area that could not be expanded upon giving the realities of game production.
I am fine with whatever you decide. Afterall it is only a game![]()
None.


Toward the conservation before about genociedes and stuff, what about V2 events that had results where like 10% of the population could dissapear?
Destroying blobs since 1995
There are events where a certain percentage of the population disappear, like plagues, expelling of religious minorities etc. But there is no decision for directly exterminating the natives.
On the other hand, just like in EU3, there is a number for every province about how many troops the natives can send against you, which can be reduced to 0, but this does not mean the extermination of the natives, or even the men, because there are decisions which can reduce this number without bloodshed.
Officially EU4 (but not Euro) skeptic.
Former MMtG staff member.
I was refering to this event (I think):
Code:#Anti-Immigrant Riots province_event = { id = 2100 title = "EVTNAME2100" desc = "EVTDESC2100" trigger = { has_national_minority = yes has_recent_imigration = yes is_colonial = yes unemployment = 0.05 owner = { civilized = yes } average_militancy = 4 } mean_time_to_happen = { months = 1000 modifier = { factor = 0.9 average_militancy = 5 } modifier = { factor = 0.9 average_militancy = 6 } modifier = { factor = 0.9 average_militancy = 7 } modifier = { factor = 1.5 NOT = { average_consciousness = 4 } } } option = { name = "EVTOPTA2100" any_pop = { limit = { is_primary_culture = no is_accepted_culture = no } reduce_pop = 0.95 consciousness = 1 militancy = -1 } } }
Destroying blobs since 1995






By the way, and I think this was probably asked before, can colonizing nations, either by immigration or conversions instill or change the culture of the colonized states to that of their own?
Meaning if Portugal, Spain or England colonise a sparsely populated state, will the culture of that state change or become that of the colonist's?
Please ban and remove the previous poster, it is clearly a bot.
"I have had one aim in regard to France in the last fourteen years, since the making of peace: to get her to forget the war... I want you to forgive Sedan as you have forgiven Waterloo."- Bismarck
The culture of the colonies will change by time as the colony develops its own identity. This is an important step to become independent.
Officially EU4 (but not Euro) skeptic.
Former MMtG staff member.