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Thread: Quick questions / Quick answers -- EU3

  1. #6181
    Is it still the case that provinces stop adding to tech research cost after you have a certain number? or was this removed in IN?

  2. #6182
    The Wiki says that the amount is:


    This is a penalty adjusted for the size of your country (in provinces). The piecewise layout above indicates its somewhat unexpected nature; basically, the first two provinces add 20%, and every province after that (except province #6, which counts for double for some reason) is 10% until you reach 8 provinces--at which point you have a 100% penalty (that is, your costs are double that of a one-province nation). Any subsequent provinces will add 2.5% to this modifier per province.
    But i don't know how recent that information is.

  3. #6183
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    Quote Originally Posted by Chronicler View Post
    Is it still the case that provinces stop adding to tech research cost after you have a certain number? or was this removed in IN?
    No cap:
    Quote Originally Posted by wiki
    the more provinces owned, the greater the multiplier to cost of research. In IN there is no cap for it while EU3 and NA had a cap of 89 provinces.
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  4. #6184
    Why do I have " different " compete merchant chances in every other Cot ? should not they be all the same ?
    second, is there a place i can check my merchant compete chances level ?

  5. #6185
    Lt. General stnikolauswagne's Avatar
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    Compete chance means your chance to actually replace one merchant of another country (compete him out of buisness). If you want to know why your chances vary just hover over the icons of the nation in CoT-window (not the one in the ledger), there you can see what lowers your chance. To actively compete in cot's you either need a high free trade slider or a very specialized mercantile build (all the NI's, high compete advisor, high prestige, no infamy, no non-core cot's)=

  6. #6186
    Liberté, egalité, fraternité StephenT's Avatar
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    Your compete chance is always 50%, plus any bonuses or penalties you get, minus any bonuses or penalties the other guy has. So there isn't one "compete" chance; your compete chance is potentially different against every merchant of every single country out there.

  7. #6187
    Major Uebergold's Avatar

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    When I enact the "Declare Statute of Monopolies" decision is it still possible to maintain monopolies later on?

  8. #6188
    Quote Originally Posted by Uebergold View Post
    When I enact the "Declare Statute of Monopolies" decision is it still possible to maintain monopolies later on?
    Yes.

  9. #6189
    If I claim a throne through diplomacy, do I need to declare a war and make the personal union that way or is it possible to gain it simply by waiting for the current ruler to die?

  10. #6190
    GroFAZ Demi Moderator blue emu's Avatar
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    Suppose that I start the game as a Horde (eg: the Timurids) and vassalize some of the neighbouring Hordes. Then I civilize myself... say, by forming the Mughals. Do the vassalized Hordes remain my vassals? Or are they automatically freed from vassalage when I convert from Timurids to Mughals?

    The reason I ask, is that a civilized country like the Mughals cannot vassalize a Horde, so if it can be done at all, it needs to be done before civilizing.
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  11. #6191
    Major Uebergold's Avatar

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    Quote Originally Posted by blue emu View Post
    Suppose that I start the game as a Horde (eg: the Timurids) and vassalize some of the neighbouring Hordes. Then I civilize myself... say, by forming the Mughals. Do the vassalized Hordes remain my vassals? Or are they automatically freed from vassalage when I convert from Timurids to Mughals?

    The reason I ask, is that a civilized country like the Mughals cannot vassalize a Horde, so if it can be done at all, it needs to be done before civilizing.
    As soon you have transformed yourself into Mughal Empire, any bordering hordes will attack you. Regardless of being your former vassal.

    Edit: Although about the vassal thing I am right now not 100% sure but it should be like that.

  12. #6192
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    Hmm, didn't see this one in the 'search' function...

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  13. #6193
    Quote Originally Posted by Axelius View Post
    If I claim a throne through diplomacy, do I need to declare a war and make the personal union that way or is it possible to gain it simply by waiting for the current ruler to die?
    You will get a PU if the ruler dies without an heir with a good claim, but that happens far less then them having a weak succession at some point at all, which enables you to claim their throne.

    So, if you really want that PU, War is the best solution. If you want a peaceful PU, you can just claim thrones and hope for the best, but be careful, because you will lose a lot of relations with everyone you have married. Also, if they have an heir with a weak claim instead of no heir, your chances improve vastly, because in this case for you not to get the PU the heir needs to die before the king, and then an other heir with a better claim needs to appear, which obviously is far less likely then just the appearence of the heir before the king dies.

  14. #6194
    People's Commissar of the Navy Demi Moderator Avindian's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Simberto View Post
    You will get a PU if the ruler dies without an heir with a good claim, but that happens far less then them having a weak succession at some point at all, which enables you to claim their throne.

    So, if you really want that PU, War is the best solution. If you want a peaceful PU, you can just claim thrones and hope for the best, but be careful, because you will lose a lot of relations with everyone you have married. Also, if they have an heir with a weak claim instead of no heir, your chances improve vastly, because in this case for you not to get the PU the heir needs to die before the king, and then an other heir with a better claim needs to appear, which obviously is far less likely then just the appearence of the heir before the king dies.
    I wanted to add a bit of clarification. It is entirely possible to form a PU with absolutely no negative consequences -- all you need is a royal marriage. However, that's entirely based on luck, and Simberto's dead on with everything else. If the PU is that important, the thing to do is go to war.
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  15. #6195
    Quote Originally Posted by Avindian View Post
    I wanted to add a bit of clarification. It is entirely possible to form a PU with absolutely no negative consequences -- all you need is a royal marriage. However, that's entirely based on luck, and Simberto's dead on with everything else. If the PU is that important, the thing to do is go to war.
    It's not completely luck, I think. I saw somewhere that it's partially based on whoever has the highest prestige (and relations?) out of the nations the nation without an heir has a RM with.

  16. #6196
    Let's say I have +188% tariffs,

    and get a land connection to my colonies (where I have overseas)

    Will I lose money then?

  17. #6197
    Sometimes Hero Demi Moderator silktrader's Avatar

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    Quote Originally Posted by Chronicler View Post
    Let's say I have +188% tariffs,

    and get a land connection to my colonies (where I have overseas)

    Will I lose money then?
    "Money" is a tad ambiguous: you're likely to lose "income", but will gain "census taxes".

    Whether you will actually lose "income" depends on two factors (among others): a) provincial population and b) tax base. Production income (which represents the largest share of "tariff" income) is determined by units produced, which in turn stem from tax bases and population level. Since overseas provinces' production units are capped to one, population and tax base have little effect on colonies contribution to income. Once you link your colonies to your homeland that cap is gone, thus production income rises.

    Generally though, considering average population and tax base in the "New World" (let's say an average, optimistic, 1.3 units in 1600) — 188% tariff efficiency would be more beneficial to you than linking those colonies, income wise.

  18. #6198
    Quote Originally Posted by silktrader View Post
    "Money" is a tad ambiguous: you're likely to lose "income", but will gain "census taxes".

    Whether you will actually lose "income" depends on two factors (among others): a) provincial population and b) tax base. Production income (which represents the largest share of "tariff" income) is determined by units produced, which in turn stem from tax bases and population level. Since overseas provinces' production units are capped to one, population and tax base have little effect on colonies contribution to income. Once you link your colonies to your homeland that cap is gone, thus production income rises.

    Generally though, considering average population and tax base in the "New World" (let's say an average, optimistic, 1.3 units in 1600) — 188% tariff efficiency would be more beneficial to you than linking those colonies, income wise.
    I am pretty sure that you are wrong. Since tariffs have a built-in 50% malus, unless you are over 200% tariff income you will always gain money by linking your stuff up.

  19. #6199
    Sometimes Hero Demi Moderator silktrader's Avatar

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    Quote Originally Posted by Simberto View Post
    I am pretty sure that you are wrong. Since tariffs have a built-in 50% malus, unless you are over 200% tariff income you will always gain money by linking your stuff up.
    Portugal, 1492: Tangiers and Ceuta both feature the same high tax base and trade good. Due to distance to the capital one is considered overseas, the other isn't. "Viceroys" was edited so that overall tariff efficiency is 188%.


    As you can see, income is higher in overseas Ceuta than in Tangiers.

  20. #6200
    What do you guys think about trade value?

    If I can get +102% trade value. Is that better (and being mercantilism), or is it better to not cut the demand (-50% if not free trade) of my colonies?

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