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th3freakie said:
Just imagine the castillians are not fighting in the Netherlands in 1640... No independent Portugal! :eek:

Ah.. well perhaps as a vassal then? And it would be more historically plausible if Spain was in personal union with France.. rarely did nations annex other sized nations.
 
YodaMaster said:
Especially when kings of both countries are not the same person. Louis XIV was not the King of Spain but his grandson.

Yeah. I say it is plausible, but not so likely as a personal union (then again, in EU3 PUs are more common than inheritances of large nations, so this could just be that small possibility actually coming true.)
 
Louis presumably had a better claim, though. It was just far more realistic for him to have Philip crowned king of Spain, as it was more likely for it to be accepted by the European establishment. The idea of one man - let alone Louis XIV - being king of both France and Spain was absurd.
 
idk how this happened

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mandead said:
Louis presumably had a better claim, though. It was just far more realistic for him to have Philip crowned king of Spain, as it was more likely for it to be accepted by the European establishment. The idea of one man - let alone Louis XIV - being king of both France and Spain was absurd.

Rather, I think that a French ruler very well could have ruled Spain as well (Just as Big Chuck V - Charles the Fifth to more serious audiences- ruled Spain and Austria) but would have launched massive wars until either A)The Franco-Iberian armies utterly destroyed the forces of every major European power or B) the other nations won, and the French would have to release Spain.

Just for the record, I think inheritances/PUs are somewhat underpowered in EU3. They should be able to happen in just the situation described, but should entail major effects on the inheriter's image throughout Europe. This would also necessitate the option to back down, as well, so something like: France gets event: "Inheritance!" for Spain. The options are "1) Annex them to our realm," "2) Rule their realm seperately," "3) Establish a vassal as King" or "4) Find a suitable local ruler." Choice 1 would give major BB and relations hits (scaled based on country size, of course) and be a full annexation, 2 would establish a Personal Union, with moderate BB and relation hits (again scaled), 3 would vassalize them with smaller BB/relations hit, and 4 would leave them independent, giving a large relations bonus between the two countries and no BB/relations hits with others.

But enough ranting. Maybe I'll start a discussion thread on it. Anyways, derrhalt, those Austrians are obviously so quick because they are holding a race, in order to determine who the big Wiener will be. :p
 
Madv said:
I had a game where two province Pommerania had a 17k army.

(there were HRE)

Don't ya just love 1.3 (and I suppose NA and 2.1) AIs with more men in the army than they have in their entire country. (I had Hesse as my vassal + ally once, they were a 1-province minor yet supported a 7000 man army. Not that I was complaining- they were my allies, after all.)
 
Currently playing as Russia in MMG my vassal Serbia declared war on Milan and it leads to this...

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This battle went on for 4 years! Austria was the HRE so they kept adding wave after wave of troops and I having 500k manpower just kept throwing my men into the fray (75k more are on their way :p ). I'm actually really suprised Austria didn't loose more troops. I had better land tech and better leaders (something like 5 generals died).
 
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Really...
King Arthur was celtic, the scots by this time were more or less anglified them too, but not the highlanders...

England, on the otherhand was not only Anglified, but ruled by a French dynasty!
 
Woad-Warrier said:
Ah.. well perhaps as a vassal then? And it would be more historically plausible if Spain was in personal union with France.. rarely did nations annex other sized nations.
Still doubt it. It was supposed to be a Personal Union from 1580 onwards, but on the 3rd king, Portugal becoming very much as independent as, say, Aragon from Castille. Not at all, that is ;)

If the 1640 "liberation" had failed and no other atempted... it would be in eu3 terms an anexation.